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Hi,
I work for a limited company that contracts out my services to organisations for writing software.
I am an employee only and do not have a share holding. I am paid a salary of around £20K. My son also works part time for the company and takes a salary of around £10K.
My wife - who runs the business, sorts out contracts, takes care of finance etc - takes dividends from the company. My wife is the only shareholder.
As the business sells my services and I am just an employee of the business, does that mean that my wife's limited company is not deemed a 'Personal Services Company'?
Wherever I look for the answer, I seem to be getting conflicting advice.
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flawless101
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